The Geometry of the Basel Problem |
Sean B. Palmer |
20/10/10 07:01 |
When Euler solved the Basel Problem, to calculate the sum of the reciprocals of the squares 1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + 1/25 et seq., this was the first time that pi appeared in a place which was not obviously geometric. But the solution, pi squared over six, smells very strongly of a geometric solution. The pi is circular, the exponentiation by two is square, and could that division by six be something to do with a triangle? As far as I've been able to research, the most elementary proof of the The fact that the problem is not still understood is easily apparent If there is a geometric solution to the Basel Problem, it may be one I've been doing some work on this, and obviously I didn't get very far * Discovered an elegant expression of the Basel Problem as the series What seems to be missing is a link to the original insight I had about Even though I've come up with some elegant expressions of the pi I also feel that intuitively there's going to be some very strange -- |
Re: The Geometry of the Basel Problem |
Sean B. Palmer |
30/12/10 05:01 |
Some notes compiled on 11th November 2010: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_of_zero http://www.mi.sanu.ac.rs/vismath/zen/zen5.htm
|
Re: The Geometry of the Basel Problem |
Jason Davies |
15/01/11 09:00 |
Dear Sean and friends, You might be interested in this note titled "Summing inverse squares by euclidean geometry" by Johan Wästlund: http://www.math.chalmers.se/~wastlund/Cosmic.pdf I discovered it via http://www.math.chalmers.se/~wastlund/ via http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=2106927, the latter being a discussion about Knuth's latest Christmas Tree lecture, "Why Pi?", where he discusses some of Johan's work. From Johan's page: Another relation of pi to arithmetic is the famous identity by Euler summing the inverse squares of the positive integers to pi^2/6. One may ask (as one of the students at Knuth's lecture) whether there is an equally simple geometric explanation of this appearance of pi. The answer is yes, and the idea seems to go back to Yaglom and Yaglom 1953. This note is my contribution to making it better known. So it seems there is indeed a proof using only classical Euclidean geometry! Riemann zeta function, here we come! :-) -- Jason Davies, http://www.jasondavies.com/ |